Time Value of Money for NISM certification

A rupee today is worth more than a rupee next year, because today's rupee can be invested. Every planning calculation in X-A (goal corpus, SIP needed, EMI, retirement income, bond price) rests on this one idea. This chapter builds the toolkit: present and future value, CAGR, EMIs, loan periods, annuities and perpetuities, with the spreadsheet functions you will have in the exam hall.

Advice & ResearchSeries X-A63 MCQs5 lessons20 flashcards3 memory tricks

Practise Time Value of Money free

What you'll learn

  1. Why money has time value
    Explain why ₹100 today is worth more than ₹100 later, and name the inputs to any TVM problem.
  2. Present value and future value
    Calculate PV and FV of a single sum, and see how compounding frequency changes the result.
  3. Rate of return: CAGR
    Convert a start value and an end value into a compound annual growth rate.
  4. EMIs and loan periods
    Use PMT for instalments and NPER for the number of instalments.
  5. Annuities and perpetuities
    Value a stream of equal payments, paid at the end or the start of each period, or forever.

Key formulas

Future valueFV = PV × (1 + r)^n
Present valuePV = FV ÷ (1 + r)^n
r and nRate per period and number of periods: for quarterly compounding at 8% a year, r = 2% and n = years × 4
CAGR(End value ÷ Beginning value)^(1/n) − 1
Period under a year or odd daysUse n = days ÷ 365, i.e. raise to the power 365/days
Spreadsheet=RATE(nper, pmt, pv, fv), e.g. =RATE(6, 0, -100000, 200000)
EMI=PMT(rate/12, months, −loan)
Number of instalments=NPER(rate/12, −EMI, loan)

Concepts explained

Time value of money

Money today is worth more than the same money later because it can earn a return; amounts at different dates must be moved to one date before comparing.

What it means

  • Compounding moves money forward: FV = PV × (1 + r)^n.
  • Discounting moves money back: PV = FV ÷ (1 + r)^n.
  • Higher rates and longer waits lower PV.
Example 1: PV of a goal
  • Goal ₹50,000 in 4 years
  • Rate 8%
  • 50,000 ÷ 1.3605

Answer: ₹36,751 needed today

Related terms

  • CAGR: c-xa-cagr
CAGR

The constant yearly compound rate that turns a beginning value into an end value.

What it means

  • (End ÷ Beginning)^(1/n) − 1.
  • For holding periods in days, raise to 365/days.
  • Simple averaging of total return overstates it.
Example 1: Doubling in 6 years
  • 2^(1/6) = 1.1225

Answer: 12.25% a year, not 16.7%

Annuity, annuity due and perpetuity

Equal payments at regular intervals; paid at period-end (ordinary) or period-start (due); a perpetuity never ends.

What it means

  • PV ordinary = C × [1 − (1 + r)^−n] ÷ r.
  • Annuity due = ordinary × (1 + r).
  • Perpetuity = C ÷ r.
Example 1: ₹10,000 a year, 5 years, 8%
  • Ordinary: ₹39,927
  • Due: × 1.08

Answer: ₹43,121

Exam tip: Spreadsheet type 0 = end of period, type 1 = beginning.

Memory tricks

PV vs FV direction'Aaj ka paisa, kal ka raja': compounding takes today's rupee forward and crowns it bigger; discounting brings tomorrow's king back down to size.

FV = PV × (1 + r)^n; PV = FV ÷ (1 + r)^n.

Annuity due vs ordinary'Advance rent vs salary': rent is paid at the start of the month (annuity due), salary at the end (ordinary annuity). The landlord, paid first, gets more value.

Annuity due flows come at the beginning and are worth more to the receiver.

Rule of 72'72 ka pahaada': divide 72 by the rate to see how many years your money takes to double; at 9%, that's 8 years.

Years to double ≈ 72 ÷ rate %.

Try 3 NISM-style questions

Q1. Why would a person making payments prefer an ordinary annuity to an annuity due?

  1. They keep the money for an extra period and can earn on it
  2. Ordinary annuities have lower total payments
  3. Annuity due payments are not allowed for individuals
  4. Ordinary annuities avoid all interest costs
Show answer

Answer: (1) They keep the money for an extra period and can earn on it

Paying at the end lets the payer use the money during the period.

Q2. A flat costs ₹60 lakh now, or ₹20 lakh now plus ₹9 lakh at each year-end for 5 years. At 8%, the instalment plan's present value is about

  1. ₹65.0 lakh
  2. ₹60.0 lakh
  3. ₹55.9 lakh
  4. ₹35.9 lakh
Show answer

Answer: (3) ₹55.9 lakh

20 + 9 × 3.9927 = ₹55.9 lakh, so the instalment plan is cheaper in today's money.

Q3. An annuity is

  1. A single lump sum received at maturity
  2. A payment that grows every year without a limit
  3. Any irregular stream of cash flows
  4. A series of equal payments at regular intervals
Show answer

Answer: (4) A series of equal payments at regular intervals

Pensions and fixed interest payments are common examples.

Practise all 63 questions Free · explanations for every option · see where you go wrong

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